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feminist:
What do you think? (please elaborate in comments)
[Poll #633349]
I'm wondering myself on this one. Assume that this definition of gender-based prejudice is true - that "prejudice" = bias, potentially damaging, against a person based on gender, while "sexism" = inherently institutional and tied to the power system, where one class (men) is the class in power. I think that definition of sexism is fundamentally flawed, but let's go with it for this purpose. The aim offeminist was to get rid of people's argument that sexism as I'd define it (that is, any gender bias that injures people) could always trump institutionalized oppression - and despite what I may lead you to believe, I can look past word choice to intent.
So, going with that. If sexism only exists if supported by the sexist group's power - is women's prejudice against men ever backed by women being in a position of greater power? Is the perception of a class of men or an individual man that women are in a position of greater power (in some situations) enough to say reverse sexism is possible in a given situation? Even with a clear definition, can a man still perceive reverse sexism, a white person perceive reverse racism, etc - despite being a member of a more powerful class of people?
feminist:Reverse sexism is not a valid concept: You may not bring up points which imply reverse sexism or explicitly say that you believe it to be a real threat. Feminism is not sexist, and neither are its goals. Sexism implies power, something which institutionally men have, and women do not. Therefore, "reverse sexism" does not exist.
What do you think? (please elaborate in comments)
[Poll #633349]
I'm wondering myself on this one. Assume that this definition of gender-based prejudice is true - that "prejudice" = bias, potentially damaging, against a person based on gender, while "sexism" = inherently institutional and tied to the power system, where one class (men) is the class in power. I think that definition of sexism is fundamentally flawed, but let's go with it for this purpose. The aim of
feminist was to get rid of people's argument that sexism as I'd define it (that is, any gender bias that injures people) could always trump institutionalized oppression - and despite what I may lead you to believe, I can look past word choice to intent. So, going with that. If sexism only exists if supported by the sexist group's power - is women's prejudice against men ever backed by women being in a position of greater power? Is the perception of a class of men or an individual man that women are in a position of greater power (in some situations) enough to say reverse sexism is possible in a given situation? Even with a clear definition, can a man still perceive reverse sexism, a white person perceive reverse racism, etc - despite being a member of a more powerful class of people?